[Mar 15, 2024] 300-420 Exam Dumps PDF Guaranteed Success with Accurate & Updated Questions [Q60-Q82]

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[Mar 15, 2024] 300-420 Exam Dumps PDF Guaranteed Success with Accurate & Updated Questions

Pass 300-420 Exam - Real Test Engine PDF with 244 Questions

NEW QUESTION # 60
Which statement describes what happens if all VSL connections between the virtual switch members are lost?

  • A. The VSS transitions to the dual active recovery mode, and both virtual switch members continue to forward traffic independently.
  • B. Both virtual switch members cease to forward traffic.
  • C. The VSS transitions to the dual active recovery mode, and only the new active virtual switch continues to forward traffic.
  • D. The virtual switch members reload.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Q. What happens if all VSL connections between the virtual switch members are lost?
A. VSLs can be configured with up to eight links between the two switches across any combination of line cards or supervisor ports to provide a high level of redundancy. If for some rare reason all VSL connections are lost between the virtual switch members leaving both the virtual switch members up, the VSS will transition to the dual active recovery mode.
The dual active state is detected rapidly (subsecond) by any of the following three methods:
Enhancement to PagP used in MEC with connecting Cisco switches
L3 Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD) configuration on a directly connected link (besides VSL) between virtual switch members or through an L2 link through an access layer switch L2 Fast-Hello Dual-Active Detection configuration on a directly connected link (besides VSL) between virtual switch members (supported with 12.2(33)SXI) In the dual active recovery mode, all interfaces except the VSL interfaces are in an operationally shut down state in the formerly active virtual switch member. The new active virtual switch continues to forward traffic on all links.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/switches/ps5718/ps9336/ prod_qas0900aecd806ed74b.html


NEW QUESTION # 61

Refer to the exhibit. Which two solutions maximize the use of the links between the core and distribution layers? (Choose two.)

  • A. use multiple equal-cost links
  • B. use HSRP
  • C. use RPVSTP+
  • D. use multiple unequal-cost links
  • E. use an IGP

Answer: A,E


NEW QUESTION # 62
Which feature is required for graceful restart to recover from a processor failure?

  • A. Cisco Express Forwarding
  • B. Stateful Switchover
  • C. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
  • D. Virtual Switch System

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Advanced Enterprise Campus Networks


NEW QUESTION # 63
An infrastructure team is concerned about the shared memory utilization of a device, and for this reason, they need to monitor the device state. Which solution limits impact on the device and provides the required data?

  • A. IPFIX
  • B. on-change subscription
  • C. static telemetry
  • D. periodic subscription

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 64
Which method will filter routes between EIGRP neighbors within the same autonomous system?

  • A. leak-map
  • B. policy-based routing
  • C. distribute-list
  • D. route tagging

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Advanced Addressing and Routing Solutions


NEW QUESTION # 65
When vEdge router redundancy is designed, which FHRP is supported?

  • A. GLBP
  • B. VRRP
  • C. OMP
  • D. HSRP

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Advanced Enterprise Campus Networks


NEW QUESTION # 66
An engineer must design an in-band management solution for a customer with branch sites. The solution must allow remote management of the branch sites using management protocols over an MPLS WAN. Queueing is implemented at the remote sites using these classes:

How must the solution prioritize the management traffic over the WAN?

  • A. Mark the traffic with DSCP EF and map into Class1 with a minimum bandwidth assigned by reducing the bandwidth available to Class2.
  • B. Mark the traffic with DSCP CS2 and map into Class2 with a minimum bandwidth assigned by reducing the bandwidth available to Class3
  • C. Mark the traffic with DSCP CS6 and map into Class1 with a minimum bandwidth assigned by reducing the bandwidth available to Class2
  • D. Mark the traffic with DSCP CS1 and map into Class2 with a minimum bandwidth assigned by reducing the bandwidth available to CIass3.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 67
A network engineer must segregate three interconnected campus networks using IS-IS routing. A two-layer hierarchy must be used to support large routing domains and to avoid more specific routes from each campus network being advertised to other campus network routers automatically. Which two actions does the engineer take to accomplish this segregation? (Choose two.)

  • A. Designate two IS-IS routers as BDR routers at the edge of each campus, and configure one BDR for all Level 1 routers and one BDR for all Level 2 routers.
  • B. Assign a unique IS-IS NET value for each campus, and configure internal campus routers with Level 1 routing.
  • C. Assign the same IS-IS NET value for each campus, and configure internal campus routers with Level 1/ Level 2 routing.
  • D. Designate two IS-IS routers from each campus to act as Level 1/Level 2 backbone routers at the edge of each campus network.
  • E. Utilize different MTU values for each campus network segment. Level 2 backbone routers must utilize a larger MTU size of 9216.

Answer: B,D


NEW QUESTION # 68
Drag and drop the components in a Cisco SD-Access architecture from the left onto their descriptions on the right.

Answer:

Explanation:


NEW QUESTION # 69
Refer to the exhibit.

An architect must design an IGP solution for an enterprise customer. The design must support:
Physical link flaps should have minimal impact.
Access routers should converge quickly after a link failure.
Which two ISIS solutions should the architect include in the design? (Choose two.)

  • A. Configure access routers to establish a Level 1 adjacency and aggregate routers to establish a Level 1 /
  • B. Configure all access and aggregate routers to establish Level 1 / Level 2 adjacencies across the network.
  • C. Advertise the IS-IS interface and loopback IP address toward the Internet and data center.
  • D. Reduce SPF and PRC intervals to improve convergence time.
  • E. Use BGP to IS-IS redistribution to advertise all Internet routes in the Level 1 area.

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
Level 2 adjacency.


NEW QUESTION # 70

Refer to the exhibit. The distribution switches serve as the layer 3 boundary. HSRP preemption is enabled.
When the primary switch comes back after a failure, traffic is initially dropped. Which solution must be implemented to improve the design?

  • A. Use the preempt delay feature on the primary HSRP device.
  • B. Increase the hello timers on both HSRP devices
  • C. Use the preempt delay feature on the backup HSRP device
  • D. Configure a higher mac-refresh interval on both HSRP devices

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 71
Refer to the exhibit.

An architect must design an IP addressing scheme for a multisite network connected via a WAN transit. The campus site must accommodate 12,000 devices and the branch sites must accommodate 1,000 devices. Which address scheme optimizes network device resources, contains convergence events to the different blocks of the network, and ensures future growth of the network?

  • A. * Campus: 10.0.0.0/18
    * Branch1: 10.0.192.0/21
    * Branch2: 10.0.200.0/21
  • B. * Campus: 10.0.0.0/10
    * Branch1: 10.64.0.0/10
    * Branch2: 10.128.0.0/10
  • C. * Campus: 10.0.0.0/20
    * Branch1: 10.0.64.0/21
    * Branch2: 10.0.128.0/21
  • D. * Campus: 10.0.0.0/16
    * Branch1: 10.255.0.0/20
    * Branch2: 10.255.16.0/20

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 72
Which design element should an engineer consider when multicast is included in a Cisco SD-Access architecture?

  • A. Multicast traffic is transported in the overlay and the EID space for wired and wireless clients.
  • B. Rendezvous points must be used in a PIM SSM deployment.
  • C. Multicast clients reside in the underlay, and the multicast source is outside the fabric or in the overlay.
  • D. PIM SSM must run in the underlay.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
Multicast traffic is transported in the overlay, in the EID space, for both wired and wireless clients
https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2018/pdf/BRKEWN-2020.pdf
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systems-management/network-automation-and-management/d


NEW QUESTION # 73
A company uses cloud-based applications for voice and video calls, file sharing, content sharing, and messaging. During business hours, these applications randomly become slow and unresponsive. However, other applications work smoothly with the current applied QoS polices. Which solution must the company choose to resolve the issue?

  • A. Identify the applications with NBAR2 and allocate the required bandwidth accordingly.
  • B. Identify the applications and reserve the required bandwidth on the perimeter routers.
  • C. Identify the application ports, create groupings, and rate-limit the required bandwidth.
  • D. Identify the port used by each application and apply a minimum bandwidth guarantee.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
using NBAR to identify application and bandwidth usage, then adjust existing QoS polices would be a more simple option. Of course, B is still ok if the network admin know all traffic and bandwidth consumption by other tools, say netflow.https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/qos_nbar/configuration/15-mt/qos-nbar-15-mt-book/n
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/ios-nx-os-software/network-based-application-recognition-nbar/index.h


NEW QUESTION # 74
Drag and drop the steps WAN Edge performs when on-boarded into the Cisco SD-WAN overlay from the left into the order they are completed on the right.

Answer:

Explanation:


NEW QUESTION # 75
A company has the following network infrastructure. (Refer to the exhibit.)

Router A is a GLBP active virtual gateway with priority level set to 250. Routers B and C are configured with the default GLPB configurations. The configuration of the active virtual gateway needs to be changed such that if the AVG fails, Router C should be elected to be used as an active virtual gateway. As the network administrator, you have been asked to make corresponding changes to the configuration.
Which command would you use for this purpose on Router C, and where would the command be configured?

  • A. glbp 10 priority 200 (on Router C)
  • B. glbp 10 preempt (on Router C)
  • C. glbp 10 priority 200 (on Router B)
  • D. glbp 10 preempt (on Router B)

Answer: A

Explanation:
You would configure the glbp 10 priority 200 command on Router C to change the configuration as required.
Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP) gateway priority determines the role that each GLBP gateway plays and what happens if the AVG fails. In the given scenario, Router A is used as an active virtual gateway. If the AVG in a LAN topology fails, an election process takes place to determine which backup virtual gateway should take over. When you configure this command on Router C, Router C will be elected when Router A fails as an AVG.
Once the configuration change is made, it can be verified by examining the output if the show run command as shown below:

In the above output, it can be determined that the glpb priority 200 command has been applied to the gigabitEthernet0/0 interface on Router
C. If the default priority of 100 had been applied, there would be no line in the output for priority. Because Router B is configured with the default configuration, it will have its priority set to the default level as 100.
You would not use the glbp 10 preempt command on Router B or the glbp 10 preempt command on Router C to change the configuration. You would use this command on a router to enable preemption. Preemption allows a virtual router that was once the AVG to assume its role as active virtual router when it comes back online if it has a higher priority than the current AVG. Alternatively, it can enable a new router with a higher priority to take the role of AVG from the current AVG if the new router has a higher AVG.
You would use not the glbp 10 priority 200 command on Router B to change the configuration. You would run this command if you needed Router B to be elected as the AVR instead of Router C, as running this command on Router B would configure it with higher priority than Router C.
Objective:
Infrastructure Services
Sub-Objective:
Configure and verify first-hop redundancy protocols
References:
Cisco > Home > End-of-Sale and End-of-Life Products > Cisco IOS Software Releases > 12.2T > Product Literature > White Papers > GLBP - Gateway Load Balancing Protocol Cisco > Cisco IOS IP Application Services Command Reference > glbp priority


NEW QUESTION # 76
Refer to the exhibit.

An architect is designing a routing solution for a company. The new design will add a circuit routers C and D to protect against loss of connectivity to 10.0.4.0/24 during a link failure between routers B and D. Which solution must the architect choose?

  • A. Stub receive-only
  • B. Stub leak-map
  • C. Stub redistributed
  • D. Stub connected

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 77
Refer to the exhibit.

An architect must design an IPv6 migration solution for an enterprise customer to support these requirements:
* Clients will transition to the new IPv6 network, which provides NAT64 and IPv6 DNS resolution services, using the same DNS name that points to the IPv4 address.
* The service provider will create a client-facing IPv6 interface with a new IPv6 virtual address that points to the same IPv4 DNS server.
* The service provider will support clients that use global IPv6 addresses and encapsulate IPv4 packets into IPv6 tunnels.
Which two migration solutions must the architect choose? (Choose two.)

  • A. Use IPv6 tunneling from the devices to the core MPLS network.
  • B. Use NAT44/64 from the devices to the core MPLS network.
  • C. Use dual-stack lite from the devices to the core MPLS network.
  • D. Use dual-stack lite from the MPLS network to the IGR.
  • E. Use NAT44/64 from the MPLS network to the IGR.

Answer: C,E


NEW QUESTION # 78
An engineer uses Postman and YANG to configure a router with:

Which get-config replay verifies that the model set was designed correctly?



  • A. Option C
  • B. Option B
  • C. Option D
  • D. Option A

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 79
Refer to the exhibit.

Refer to the exhibit. An architect must design a solution to connect the two ASs. To optimize bandwidth, the design will implement load sharing between router R6 and router R4. Which solution should the design include?

  • A. Use next-hop-serf attributes only for routes that are learned from eBGP peers.
  • B. Use update-source to specify the Loopback interface.
  • C. Use maximum-paths to install multiple paths in the routing table.
  • D. Configure the eBGP TTL to support eBGP multihop.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 80
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a 'proof-of-concept' that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?

  • A. IPv4 OSPF Routing
  • B. NTP
  • C. BGP
  • D. IP NAT
  • E. IPv4 layer 3 security
  • F. IPv6 OSPF Routing
  • G. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution

Answer: D

Explanation:
On R1 we need to add the client IP address for reachability to server to the access list that is used to specify which hosts get NATed.


NEW QUESTION # 81
You have executed the following commands on switchA:

What is the result of executing the given commands? (Choose two.)

  • A. Only the listed RADIUS server is used for authentication
  • B. 802.1X authentication is enabled on the Fa0/1 interface only
  • C. The key for the RADIUS server is firstKey111
  • D. AAA is not enabled on the switch

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
A default list is used for the RADIUS server for authentication and the key for the RADIUS server is firstKey111. A RADIUS server combines the authentication and authorization processes. Before you configure the RADIUS server, you should enable AAA by using the aaa new-model command in the global configuration mode. Then, you can specify the location of the RADIUS server and the key using the radius-server host command. In this case, the RADIUS server is located at the IP address 192.168.105.67 and requires the key firstKey111 as the encryption key. This key must be mutually agreed upon by the server and the clients.
The aaa authentication dot1x default group radius command creates a method list for 802.1X authentication.
The default group radius keywords specify that the default method will be to use all listed RADIUS servers to authenticate clients. Since only one is listed, it will be the only one used.
It is incorrect to state that 802.1X authentication is enabled on the Fa0/1 interface only. The interface range Fa
0/1 - 11 and the dot1x port-control auto commands specify that 802.1X authentication is enabled on the interfaces Fa0/1 to Fa0/11.
It is incorrect to stat that AAA is not enabled on the switch. The aaa new-model command enables AAA globally on the switch.
Objective:
Infrastructure Security
Sub-Objective:
Describe device security using Cisco IOS AAA with TACACS+ and RADIUS
References:
Catalyst 4500 Series Switch Cisco IOS Software Configuration Guide, 12.2(31)SG > Configuring 802.1X Port- Based Authentication Cisco IOS LAN Switching Command Reference (PDF)


NEW QUESTION # 82
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